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Stuff Every Private Pilot Should Know

Study for the FAA private pilot knowledge test: regulations, weather, airspace and aerodynamics in 30 seconds a card.

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⏱ Timed practice exam

FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) knowledge test: 60 questions, 150 minutes, pass with 42 right (70%). (official format)

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About the real test: FAA Private Pilot Airplane knowledge test (PAR)

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  1. Flying an airplane VFR by day, how much fuel must remain after reaching your first planned landing?
    Show the answer

    30 minutes at normal cruise. Rule 91.151 says a daytime VFR airplane flight needs enough fuel to reach the first planned landing and then fly 30 more minutes at normal cruise. Wind and forecast weather must be counted too.

  2. Flying VFR at night, what minimum fuel reserve does an airplane need after the first planned landing?
    Show the answer

    45 minutes. Rule 91.151 raises the VFR airplane reserve from 30 minutes by day to 45 minutes at night. Night makes diverting and finding a field harder, so the rule adds a cushion.

  3. In Class G airspace above 1,200 feet AGL but below 10,000 feet MSL, what is the day VFR visibility minimum?
    Show the answer

    1 statute mile. The 91.155 table gives Class G above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 MSL a day minimum of 1 statute mile. At night it jumps to 3 statute miles, and cloud clearances apply both times.

All 324 practice questions

The first 50 are free, with the answer, why it's right and the official sources. The other 274 (🔒) are for AhaBulb members. Or play them as a game and track what you've learned.

Show all 324 questions
  1. Flying an airplane VFR by day, how much fuel must remain after reaching your first planned landing?
  2. Flying VFR at night, what minimum fuel reserve does an airplane need after the first planned landing?
  3. In Class G airspace above 1,200 feet AGL but below 10,000 feet MSL, what is the day VFR visibility minimum?
  4. Below 10,000 feet MSL in Class C, D or E airspace, what VFR cloud clearance applies?
  5. What is the VFR cloud clearance requirement inside Class B airspace?
  6. Without special VFR, what minimum ceiling lets you fly VFR beneath it in a Class D surface area?
  7. When aircraft of different categories converge, which one has the right of way over all the others?
  8. Two aircraft are approaching each other head-on. What must each pilot do?
  9. Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
  10. Except for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum altitude over a congested area such as a town?
  11. Over areas that are not congested, what is the minimum altitude except for takeoff and landing?
  12. How long after drinking any alcoholic beverage must a pilot wait before acting as a crewmember?
  13. Above 12,500 up to 14,000 feet cabin altitude, when must the required crew use oxygen?
  14. To carry passengers, you need 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding how many days?
  15. How often must a private pilot complete a flight review to keep acting as pilot in command?
  16. For private pilot privileges, how long does a third class medical last if you were under 40 at the exam?
  17. Which two aircraft certificates does rule 91.203 require to be on board?
  18. Which event requires immediate notification of the NTSB, even if no one is hurt?
  19. Cruising VFR more than 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 090, which altitude follows the rule?
  20. The Mode C veil requires an altitude reporting transponder within how far of listed major airports?
  21. Class A airspace generally begins at what altitude?
  22. Approaching Class C, the controller replies with your call sign and 'standby.' May you enter?
  23. The Class C surface area core usually has what radius around the primary airport?
  24. Class D airspace typically extends up to about how high above the airport elevation?
  25. What must a VFR pilot receive before entering Class B airspace?
  26. In most areas of the US, Class E airspace begins at what height?
  27. Which type of special use airspace is one where the flight of aircraft is prohibited?
  28. Flying VFR through an active military operations area (MOA), what should a pilot do?
  29. How does the FAA issue a temporary flight restriction (TFR)?
  30. A taxiing airplane sees a flashing white light from the tower. What does it mean?
  31. In flight, a steady red light from the control tower means what?
  32. At a runway holding position marking, on which side must you stop when told to hold short?
  33. What colors identify an airport mandatory instruction sign, such as a runway hold sign?
  34. Pavement before a displaced threshold, marked with white arrows, may NOT be used for which?
  35. Runway 27 is aligned closest to what direction?
  36. A lighted civilian land airport's rotating beacon flashes which colors?
  37. Unless otherwise indicated, which way are turns made in an airport traffic pattern?
  38. Wingtip vortices are strongest when the airplane making them is what?
  39. Inbound to a nontowered airport, from how far out should you monitor and talk on the CTAF?
  40. Unless ATC says otherwise, which transponder code does a VFR pilot use?
  41. Which transponder code tells ATC your two-way radio has failed?
  42. On a VFR cross-country and not talking to ATC, which frequency would you use in an emergency?
  43. On the radio, what does 'Wilco' mean?
  44. What is the correct way to say 5,500 feet MSL to ATC?
  45. On aeronautical charts, what do broken magenta isogonic lines connect?
  46. Converting a true course to magnetic, what do you do with an easterly variation?
  47. What causes deviation error in an airplane's magnetic compass?
  48. What is navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints called?
  49. What is the scale of a VFR sectional chart?
  50. VOR radials are referenced to which north?
  51. In straight, level, unaccelerated flight, lift is equal to which force? 🔒
  52. What is a wing's angle of attack? 🔒
  53. What always causes a wing to stall? 🔒
  54. What is the load factor in a coordinated, level turn at 60 degrees of bank? 🔒
  55. What is true of the wings in every spin? 🔒
  56. In the FAA's spin recovery steps, what should a pilot do with the throttle first? 🔒
  57. What danger does ground effect create during takeoff? 🔒
  58. At a high angle of attack, P-factor yaws a typical single-engine airplane which way? 🔒
  59. The propeller's spiraling slipstream strikes which part of the airplane? 🔒
  60. When a force tilts a spinning propeller, where does the resulting force act? 🔒
  61. What is design maneuvering speed, VA? 🔒
  62. Per the FAA, carburetor icing can occur at outside air temperatures as high as about what? 🔒
  63. With a fixed-pitch propeller, what is usually the first sign of carburetor ice? 🔒
  64. With carburetor ice present, what happens to RPM when full carburetor heat is applied? 🔒
  65. As an airplane climbs with the mixture left at full rich, the fuel-air mixture becomes what? 🔒
  66. What is detonation in a piston aircraft engine? 🔒
  67. What usually causes preignition in a piston engine? 🔒
  68. If your engine's recommended fuel grade is not available, what should you use? 🔒
  69. If the airplane's electrical system fails, what happens to the magneto ignition? 🔒
  70. A blocked pitot tube affects which instrument? 🔒
  71. When a pilot switches to the cabin alternate static source, the altimeter usually reads what? 🔒
  72. Accelerating on an east or west heading, the magnetic compass shows what in the Northern Hemisphere? 🔒
  73. Starting a turn from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass does what? 🔒
  74. On an airspeed indicator, what does the bottom of the white arc mark? 🔒
  75. What does the yellow arc on an airspeed indicator mean? 🔒
  76. For the same calibrated airspeed, how does true airspeed change as altitude increases? 🔒
  77. Which speed gives the most altitude in the shortest distance, for clearing obstacles? 🔒
  78. What are standard sea-level temperature and pressure? 🔒
  79. Which three ingredients does a thunderstorm need to form? 🔒
  80. What marks the start of a thunderstorm's mature stage? 🔒
  81. Radiation fog usually forms under which conditions? 🔒
  82. What does advection fog need that radiation fog does not? 🔒
  83. What happens to temperature with altitude inside a temperature inversion? 🔒
  84. Freezing rain tells a pilot what about the air above? 🔒
  85. In an aviation weather report, what is the ceiling? 🔒
  86. Why is frost on the wings dangerous for takeoff? 🔒
  87. How do you find the center of gravity from a loading list? 🔒
  88. For weight and balance, how much does one gallon of avgas weigh? 🔒
  89. Which is an effect of flying an airplane that is over its maximum weight? 🔒
  90. How does high humidity affect density altitude and airplane performance? 🔒
  91. Which type of hypoxia comes from the lower pressure of oxygen at high altitude? 🔒
  92. Carbon monoxide from a leaky cabin heater causes which type of hypoxia? 🔒
  93. Alcohol and certain drugs can cause which type of hypoxia? 🔒
  94. How can a pilot recover from hyperventilation? 🔒
  95. What causes the flight illusion called the leans? 🔒
  96. About how long does complete dark adaptation of the eyes take? 🔒
  97. When scanning for traffic, how big should each eye movement be, per the AIM? 🔒
  98. What is the FAA's antidote for the macho hazardous attitude? 🔒
  99. What does the IMSAFE checklist help a pilot check before a flight? 🔒
  100. In the FAA's PAVE risk checklist, what does the V stand for? 🔒
  101. Besides a pilot certificate, what must a private pilot have on hand when flying as pilot in command? 🔒
  102. After moving, how long can a pilot use their certificate before notifying the FAA of the new address? 🔒
  103. When a private pilot flies friends and splits costs, what is the least the pilot may pay? 🔒
  104. A pilot holds a valid medical but knows of a new condition that would fail the exam. May they act as PIC? 🔒
  105. Under standard medical rules for airplane flight, what minimum medical class must a private pilot hold? 🔒
  106. Under BasicMed, how often must a pilot get a comprehensive medical exam from a state-licensed physician? 🔒
  107. Under BasicMed, how often must a pilot complete the medical education course? 🔒
  108. Under BasicMed rules in effect today, how many passengers may a pilot carry? 🔒
  109. A newly issued Certificate of Aircraft Registration expires after how long? 🔒
  110. Where must an aircraft's airworthiness certificate be? 🔒
  111. Under the usual Part 91 annual-inspection rule, what is the inspection interval? 🔒
  112. Which operation triggers the 100-hour inspection rule? 🔒
  113. Before using a required ATC transponder, how recently must it have been tested and inspected? 🔒
  114. An emergency locator transmitter's battery must be replaced after the ELT has been used for how long in total? 🔒
  115. How long must an owner keep records of an annual inspection? 🔒
  116. What is an FAA Airworthiness Directive (AD)? 🔒
  117. Is compliance with a Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin (SAIB) required by law? 🔒
  118. An aircraft is overdue for its annual but safe to fly. What lets it fly to a repair shop? 🔒
  119. Who is primarily responsible for keeping an aircraft in an airworthy condition? 🔒
  120. Who decides whether an aircraft is in condition for safe flight right before a flight? 🔒
  121. Which job may a private pilot do as preventive maintenance on a plane they own? 🔒
  122. Besides position and anticollision lights, what spare item does night VFR require if the airplane uses fuses? 🔒
  123. Flying without an MEL, how must you handle a nonrequired inoperative instrument left in the airplane? 🔒
  124. A Part 91 Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is approved for what? 🔒
  125. Which type of airworthiness certificate does an experimental or light-sport aircraft get? 🔒
  126. In the lower 48 states, what phone number reaches Flight Service for a weather briefing? 🔒
  127. What is a SPECI weather report? 🔒
  128. A pilot reports severe turbulence. Which type of pilot report is that? 🔒
  129. A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers the area within how far of the airport's runways? 🔒
  130. On a winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB), why might the 3,000-foot wind be blank? 🔒
  131. Which AIRMET describes moderate icing and gives freezing level heights? 🔒
  132. A Convective SIGMET is issued for severe thunderstorms with surface winds of at least how much? 🔒
  133. Which NWS center issues the Convective Outlook (AC) showing severe thunderstorm potential? 🔒
  134. A warm, moist air mass moves over a cold surface. What weather usually follows? 🔒
  135. Which cloud type often signals mountain wave activity? 🔒
  136. How strong can the downdrafts in a microburst be? 🔒
  137. May a Part 91 pilot replace paper charts with a qualifying electronic flight bag? 🔒
  138. Compared with still air, what does a headwind do to an airplane's groundspeed? 🔒
  139. A 400-nautical-mile flight at 100 knots groundspeed takes how long? 🔒
  140. Which time abbreviation is commonly called Zulu time in aviation? 🔒
  141. Who is responsible for activating a filed VFR flight plan? 🔒
  142. What may begin if a VFR flight plan remains open 30 minutes after ETA? 🔒
  143. How should an airplane acknowledge an interceptor's daytime command to follow? 🔒
  144. How does a restricted area differ from a prohibited area? 🔒
  145. In an alert area, who is responsible for collision avoidance? 🔒
  146. Why are controlled firing areas not charted for pilots? 🔒
  147. For an airplane under special VFR, what minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance apply? 🔒
  148. What must an airplane pilot have to receive special VFR at night? 🔒
  149. How do you estimate a value between two entries on an airplane performance chart? 🔒
  150. Compared with a level runway, how does an uphill slope affect takeoff ground run? 🔒
  151. How does a soft grass runway usually affect takeoff ground roll? 🔒
  152. Why does a headwind usually shorten takeoff distance? 🔒
  153. What landing-control problem can an excessively forward center of gravity cause? 🔒
  154. As an airplane's center of gravity moves aft, what happens to longitudinal stability? 🔒
  155. How is an item's moment calculated for airplane weight and balance? 🔒
  156. Which primary flight control correctly matches its airplane motion? 🔒
  157. As flaps extend farther, which usually grows faster, lift or drag? 🔒
  158. What does the governor change to hold selected RPM on a constant-speed propeller? 🔒
  159. Why is an airplane fuel tank vented to the outside? 🔒
  160. In a typical small airplane, what normally powers the electrical system once the engine is running? 🔒
  161. What does a vertical speed indicator show? 🔒
  162. What is the basic difference between anti-icing and deicing equipment? 🔒
  163. What immediate actions treat suspected hypoxia in flight? 🔒
  164. Which actions can help equalize middle-ear pressure during altitude changes? 🔒
  165. In a graveyard spiral, what happens if the pilot pulls back to stop the sensed descent? 🔒
  166. What may help relieve motion sickness during a flight lesson? 🔒
  167. You smell exhaust and get a headache while the cabin heater is on. What should you do right away? 🔒
  168. In the FAA's terms, what is acute stress? 🔒
  169. According to the FAA, what normally cures acute fatigue? 🔒
  170. To help prevent dehydration, how much water does the FAA suggest drinking every 24 hours? 🔒
  171. A runway narrower than you are used to can make you think you are what? 🔒
  172. An approach over dark water or snow with no ground features is nicknamed what? 🔒
  173. Atmospheric haze tends to make a pilot do what on an approach? 🔒
  174. After a dive with no decompression stops, how long should you wait before flying up to 8,000 feet? 🔒
  175. What blood or breath alcohol concentration bars a pilot from acting as a crewmember? 🔒
  176. Except in an emergency, may a pilot carry someone who appears intoxicated by alcohol? 🔒
  177. Which side effects make common over-the-counter cold pills risky for pilots? 🔒
  178. What is the FAA's antidote for the impulsivity hazardous attitude? 🔒
  179. A pilot thinks What's the use? What is the FAA's antidote for that resignation attitude? 🔒
  180. The FAA's 5P check covers the Plan, Plane, Pilot, Passengers and what? 🔒
  181. What are a pilot's personal minimums? 🔒
  182. Who is responsible for deciding if the airplane is in condition for safe flight? 🔒
  183. When you drain a fuel sample, where will any water show up? 🔒
  184. During preflight, what color should a sample of 100LL avgas be? 🔒
  185. Before takeoff, what restraint use must the PIC brief every person on? 🔒
  186. How long should you run the starter continuously before giving it a cool-down break? 🔒
  187. After an engine start, what should you do if oil pressure has not come up within about 30 seconds? 🔒
  188. What is the main cause of backfiring when starting a piston airplane engine? 🔒
  189. On an airport diagram, what is a hot spot? 🔒
  190. At a towered airport, your taxi route crosses a runway. What do you need before crossing it? 🔒
  191. When should taxi-time checklists be completed, per the FAA? 🔒
  192. What colors are on a taxiway location sign, the one that tells you which taxiway you are on? 🔒
  193. A runway sign shows a white 3 on a black background. What does it tell you? 🔒
  194. At night, what color are taxiway edge lights? 🔒
  195. Flashing yellow lights on each side of a taxiway at a hold short line are called what? 🔒
  196. Which end of a wind sock points into the wind? 🔒
  197. If your airplane has anti-collision lights, when must they be on? 🔒
  198. Why should a run-up be done on a firm surface free of debris? 🔒
  199. For every flight, what airport information must the PIC know before departure under rule 91.103? 🔒
  200. What should you say first when making an initial radio call to ATC? 🔒
  201. When may a pilot abbreviate a call sign on the initial ATC contact? 🔒
  202. How should a transponder normally be operated while taxiing on an airport movement area? 🔒
  203. Your transmitter fails while arriving at a towered airport. What should you do? 🔒
  204. Why can an alternator failure eventually silence the aircraft radios? 🔒
  205. Who remains responsible for safe flight when ATC gives radar vectors to a VFR pilot? 🔒
  206. Which service is part of basic terminal radar service for VFR aircraft? 🔒
  207. Do extinguished runway status lights give a pilot clearance to enter or depart? 🔒
  208. What should you do when red Runway Entrance Lights illuminate at a hold line? 🔒
  209. What do illuminated red Takeoff Hold Lights mean to an airplane in takeoff position? 🔒
  210. What is the preferred traffic pattern entry from the downwind side at a nontowered airport? 🔒
  211. Which end of an airport tetrahedron points in the landing direction? 🔒
  212. What is the main purpose of an ATIS broadcast? 🔒
  213. How does a headwind affect the ground roll needed for takeoff? 🔒
  214. After a short-field takeoff with an obstacle, when should you transition from VX to VY? 🔒
  215. When should takeoff flaps and gear be retracted during a short-field obstacle departure? 🔒
  216. During a soft-field takeoff roll, where should airplane weight be transferred as quickly as possible? 🔒
  217. After lifting off a soft field below climb speed, where should you accelerate? 🔒
  218. What best describes a stabilized visual approach? 🔒
  219. In a typical GA traffic pattern, what should you do if unstable below 300 feet AGL? 🔒
  220. What does a tailwind do to landing distance? 🔒
  221. In a wing-low crosswind approach, which controls keep you aligned with the runway? 🔒
  222. Using the wing-low method, which main wheel should touch down first? 🔒
  223. As an airplane slows after a crosswind landing, how should aileron into the wind change? 🔒
  224. Why use a forward slip during an approach? 🔒
  225. With a crosswind during a forward slip, which wing should be lowered? 🔒
  226. What is the first control priority after deciding to go around? 🔒
  227. How should landing flaps normally be retracted during a go-around? 🔒
  228. As bank increases during entry to a level steep turn, what control changes are normally needed? 🔒
  229. What rule of thumb tells you when to begin rolling out of a steep turn? 🔒
  230. In a steep turn, what does the airplane tend to do if the pilot holds no aileron pressure? 🔒
  231. An airplane stalls at 50 knots in level flight. About what is its stall speed in a level 60 degree bank? 🔒
  232. In a steep turn the nose drops and you lose altitude. What should you do first? 🔒
  233. Why does the FAA recommend no faster than VA or VO for steep turns? 🔒
  234. If you hold the same bank angle and fly faster, what happens to the radius of the turn? 🔒
  235. What do ground reference maneuvers mainly train a pilot to do? 🔒
  236. Ground reference maneuvers are generally flown at what height above the ground? 🔒
  237. Flying turns around a point in wind, where is the bank angle steepest? 🔒
  238. Which everyday flight path does the rectangular course maneuver copy? 🔒
  239. At 100 knots of airspeed with a 20 knot direct crosswind, about how far must you turn into the wind? 🔒
  240. What is navigation by computing heading and groundspeed from time, airspeed, distance and direction called? 🔒
  241. When planning a VFR cross-country, what makes a good visual checkpoint? 🔒
  242. When studying the terrain along a route, how tall can television transmitting towers be? 🔒
  243. To get true heading from true course, when do you add the wind correction angle? 🔒
  244. When wind is present, which speed must you use to figure flight time and fuel burn? 🔒
  245. Why might a VOR receiver show an OFF flag when you are flying low and far from the station? 🔒
  246. How can a pilot tell a VOR is out of service for maintenance? 🔒
  247. Using a VOR test facility (VOT) with the needle centered, what should the OBS read with a FROM flag? 🔒
  248. At minimum, how many GPS satellites must be in view for RAIM, without baro-aiding? 🔒
  249. Must the GPS database be current to use the GPS for VFR navigation? 🔒
  250. ATC says 'traffic 12 o'clock.' That clock position is based on what? 🔒
  251. When should a pilot press the transponder IDENT button? 🔒
  252. Which type of ADS-B Out equipment is required in Class A airspace, beginning at 18,000 feet MSL? 🔒
  253. In an emergency that requires going to an alternate airport, when should you turn toward it? 🔒
  254. If you deviate from an ATC instruction because of an emergency, what must you do? 🔒
  255. If you become lost and can't see a town, what does the FAA say to do first? 🔒
  256. Flying slower than the best lift-to-drag speed (L/D max), what does it take to fly even slower? 🔒
  257. What is the most important action in recovering from an impending or full stall? 🔒
  258. Compared with a power-on stall, how noticeable are the buffeting cues in a power-off stall? 🔒
  259. Power-on stall practice simulates a stall during which phases of flight? 🔒
  260. Where is a skidding cross-control stall most likely to happen? 🔒
  261. Besides a stalled wing, what else must act on an airplane for a spin to start? 🔒
  262. Which spin phase lasts from the stall and start of rotation until the spin is fully developed? 🔒
  263. After reducing power in a spin, where should the ailerons be? 🔒
  264. Which rudder input stops rotation in the FAA's generic spin recovery? 🔒
  265. When should forward elevator follow opposite rudder during generic spin recovery? 🔒
  266. What should happen to the rudder when spin rotation stops? 🔒
  267. Why avoid excessive back pressure during the final spin pullout? 🔒
  268. Which instrument directly pictures the airplane's pitch and bank attitude? 🔒
  269. What does a turn coordinator not show precisely? 🔒
  270. A standard-rate turn changes heading at how many degrees per second? 🔒
  271. If the inclinometer ball is left of center, which rudder should you press? 🔒
  272. Why must a basic heading indicator be realigned with the magnetic compass? 🔒
  273. A blocked static port causes errors in which instruments besides the airspeed indicator? 🔒
  274. What instrument-scan error means staring at one instrument too long? 🔒
  275. In a nose-high unusual attitude with falling airspeed, what should you do with power? 🔒
  276. In a nose-low unusual attitude with rising airspeed, what should happen first? 🔒
  277. Which condition can lead to an unintentional unusual attitude? 🔒
  278. If bodily sensations disagree with reliable instruments in IMC, which should you trust? 🔒
  279. After selecting an autopilot mode, what should the pilot do next? 🔒
  280. What should begin an initial radio call to an ATC facility? 🔒
  281. With VFR radar traffic advisories, should you expect ATC to call every target? 🔒
  282. If reported traffic is not in sight, what radar help may a VFR pilot request? 🔒
  283. Does accepting a VFR radar vector transfer safe-flight responsibility to ATC? 🔒
  284. After tuning a VOR frequency, what should you verify before navigating? 🔒
  285. You want to fly to a VOR, but a centered CDI shows FROM. What should you do? 🔒
  286. What VOR indication marks station passage for a position report? 🔒
  287. Which event can demand an immediate emergency descent? 🔒
  288. What bank angle does the FAA describe when starting an emergency descent? 🔒
  289. Which speed limits still apply during an emergency descent? 🔒
  290. Which speed maximizes time aloft rather than distance after power loss? 🔒
  291. How does a headwind affect an airplane's ground distance in a power-off glide? 🔒
  292. If the engine fails at or below best glide speed, what immediate pitch action is needed? 🔒
  293. On a stabilized final approach, how does the aiming point on the runway appear to the pilot? 🔒
  294. Since 2009, which ELT frequency do Cospas-Sarsat satellites still pick up? 🔒
  295. How should a pilot in distress begin the first radio call for help? 🔒
  296. Your only alternator fails in flight. What should you do right away? 🔒
  297. When vacuum pressure drops below normal, which instruments may become unreliable? 🔒
  298. With a partly blocked static system, what does the altimeter show while you descend? 🔒
  299. In many light airplanes with glass displays, why could a blocked pitot tube fool the backup instruments too? 🔒
  300. If only one flap extends, which way does the airplane roll? 🔒
  301. If the cabin-to-elevator linkage fails and the elevator weathervanes, what can still give some pitch control? 🔒
  302. Unless the POH says otherwise, what is the first step for an engine fire in flight? 🔒
  303. What is usually the first sign of an electrical fire in a small airplane? 🔒
  304. In a cabin fire, when should you open the cabin air vents to clear the smoke? 🔒
  305. Why must oil and grease be kept away from aircraft oxygen equipment? 🔒
  306. A cabin door pops open right after liftoff. What does the FAA say to do? 🔒
  307. How often must a required emergency locator transmitter be inspected? 🔒
  308. When may an analog 121.5 MHz ELT be tested on the airplane? 🔒
  309. On a fire extinguisher, which fire class means energized electrical equipment? 🔒
  310. Before flying over uninhabited land, what survival gear does the AIM say to bring? 🔒
  311. When would a passenger normally pull an airplane's ballistic parachute? 🔒
  312. When an Emergency Autoland system takes over, what transponder code does it set? 🔒
  313. At night, why can an object vanish if you stare straight at it? 🔒
  314. To see a dim object at night, where should a pilot look? 🔒
  315. What is the downside of red cockpit lighting at night? 🔒
  316. To select the highest available pilot-controlled lighting intensity, how many times should you key the mic? 🔒
  317. On an instrument runway, what color marks the edge-light caution zone near the far end? 🔒
  318. Outside Alaska, when does rule 91.209 require an aircraft's position lights in flight? 🔒
  319. In flight, you see another airplane's red light on your right and green on your left. What does it mean? 🔒
  320. During a night run-up, what does the FAA warn could go unnoticed? 🔒
  321. What is autokinesis? 🔒
  322. For night flights, what kind of flashlight does the FAA recommend? 🔒
  323. When stopping the engine, why do pilots briefly switch the magnetos OFF at idle first? 🔒
  324. If an airplane will sit unused for a while, why is it good practice to fill the fuel tanks? 🔒